Certified Wireless Security Professional

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1. What are some of the reasons to create a well-defined security policy?

It is important to have a central source of documentation that defines practices and procedures

IT staff requires the documented authority to enforce the defined policies

To maintain network security with consistency

All of the above

2. Which of the following steps are involved in creating a wireless security policy?

Provide ongoing monitoring and security auditing

Perform a risk assessment

Implement WEP instead of WPA2

All of the above

3. Which of the following define the criteria that should be included with the security policy functions?

Management of WLAN devices

Use of passwords

Capture and analyze WLAN traffic

All of the above

4. Which of the following solutions should be considered to aid in security policy enforcement for mobile device technology?

MDM

BYOD

WPA3

Social networking policy

5. Security baselines give the minimum configurations that must be deployed when staging a new device

True

False

6. Which of the following provides a starting point to work from when striving for wireless network security?

Device labeling

Security baselines

Monitoring

None of the above

7. One way to work with hardening is to begin by changing default passwords because the default password is going to be known by other people as well

True

False

8. Which of the following make social networking vulnerable to potential threats within an organization?

Phishing attacks

Malware threats

Device registration

Remote lock and wipe

9. To which region’s citizens does the General Data Protection Regulation or GDPR apply?

Canada

European Union

Asia

Russia

10. To which type of sensitive information does PCI DSS apply?

Research data

Big data

Credit card data

None of the above

11. Which statements describe the guidelines for employee encouragement for security?

Ensure that the leadership team leads the security initiatives

Avoid involving internal users in security awareness training

Ensure security is part of the organization's culture

All of the above

12. What topics should be covered in security awareness training?

Asset classification

Risk management

Physical and logical security

Safe computing best practices

13. What are elements of a Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures or CVE?

Incident

Reference

Description

All of the above

14. Which of the following is a plan for managing important upgrades for all the software and technologies that a company uses internally or distributing to clients?

Network management

Patch management

SNMP

Resource management

15. Which of the following can help you aggregate and correlate data from multiple devices?

PCI-DSS

HIPAA

SNMP

SIEM

16. In a Man in the middle attack, an attacker passively captures and examines wireless frames from a victim's network

True

False

17. Which of the following is capable of mitigating attacks from rogue access points?

AES

WPA3

WIPS

802.1X/EAP

18. Which of the following uses disguised email as a vector and the goal is to trick the recipient into believing that the message is legitimate?

Man in the middle attack

Phishing

Denial of Service attack

Jamming

19. Match the penetration testing task with it's description

Discovery	Monitor what is visible Unselect Prepare and define the work Unselect Scan actual systems and discover client's vulnerabilities Unselect Document the findings Unselect
Report	Monitor what is visible Unselect Prepare and define the work Unselect Scan actual systems and discover client's vulnerabilities Unselect Document the findings Unselect
Planning	Monitor what is visible Unselect Prepare and define the work Unselect Scan actual systems and discover client's vulnerabilities Unselect Document the findings Unselect
Attack	Monitor what is visible Unselect Prepare and define the work Unselect Scan actual systems and discover client's vulnerabilities Unselect Document the findings Unselect

20. Passive scanning tools listen to all packets on a given channel, analyzing those packets, rather than transmitting probe requests

True

False

21. The typical wireless intrusion detection system is a client/server model that consists of which of the following two components?

Sensors

RADIUS Server

Windows Server

WIPS Server

22. What are some of the recommendations that might be made to a customer after a successful WLAN security audit?

Stringent authentication methods

Role-based access control procedures

Employee training

All of the above

23. WLAN protocol analyzers are typically used for Layer 2 auditing and spectrum analyzers are used for Layer 1 auditing

True

False

24. The principle of least privilege is to run processes in their lowest level of permission

True

False

25. Which of the following system provides the capability of providing the ability to remotely act on client devices?

WIDS

WIPS

BYOD

MDM

26. The PCI-DSS regulations that govern hospital patient information policy will have a great impact on wireless security policy

True

False

27. Match the labels that a WIPS uses with it's description

Authorized	refers to any client station or access point that is detected by the WIPS and whose identity is known Unselect refers to any client station or access point that is considered a potential threat Unselect refers to any new 802.11 radio that has been detected but not classified as a rogue Unselect refers to any client station or access point that is a member of the company's wireless network. Unselect
Unauthorized	refers to any client station or access point that is detected by the WIPS and whose identity is known Unselect refers to any client station or access point that is considered a potential threat Unselect refers to any new 802.11 radio that has been detected but not classified as a rogue Unselect refers to any client station or access point that is a member of the company's wireless network. Unselect
Rogue	refers to any client station or access point that is detected by the WIPS and whose identity is known Unselect refers to any client station or access point that is considered a potential threat Unselect refers to any new 802.11 radio that has been detected but not classified as a rogue Unselect refers to any client station or access point that is a member of the company's wireless network. Unselect
Neighbor	refers to any client station or access point that is detected by the WIPS and whose identity is known Unselect refers to any client station or access point that is considered a potential threat Unselect refers to any new 802.11 radio that has been detected but not classified as a rogue Unselect refers to any client station or access point that is a member of the company's wireless network. Unselect

28. Which of the following type of triangulation method uses the variation of arrival times of the same transmitted signal?

RF positioning

RF calibration

RF fingerprinting

Time difference of arrival (TDoA)

29. RF fingerprinting solutions are more costly and require more time to set up and calibrate. Recalibration is required should the RF environment change

True

False

30. Which of the following will help detect any type of RF interference that might conflict with your WLAN?

Spectrum analysis

Protocol analysis

Signature analysis

MAC table analysis

31. What is the difference between WIPS and WIDS?

Both can detect threats only

Both can detect threats, but WIPS can also do threat mitigation

Both can detect and mitigate threats

Both can detect threats, but WIDS can also do threat mitigation

32. Auditing the WLAN security practices of a stadium that uses wireless Point of Sale terminals refers to which of the following regulation?

HIPPA

PCI

GDPR

FIPS

33. Which of these types of EAP require a server-side certificate to create an encrypted TLS tunnel?

EAP-TTLS

EAP-TLS

EAP-MSCHAPv2

All of the above

34. EAP-MD5 and EAP-LEAP protect the supplicant validation exchange within a TLS tunnel and are therefore not susceptible to offline dictionary attacks

True

False

35. Which of the following ports are used by RADIUS protocol for authentication and accounting?

UDP ports 1812 and 1813

TCP ports 1812 and 1813

TCP port 443 and 80

None of the above

36. Which of the following protocols is used to provide user authentication in an 802.1X framework?

MS-CHAP

PAP

MS-CHAPv2

EAP

37. In digital communications, which of the following is a measure of uncertainty associated with a random variable?

Encoding

Cryptography

Entropy

Encryption

38. Which of the following is considered as a more secure replacement for PSK authentication?

WDS

Per-user PSK

WPA3

Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE)

39. The 802.11-2012 standard defines which of the following fast secure roaming mechanisms?

Pre-authentication

OKC

PMK caching

Fast BSS transition

40. Which of the following WPA3-SAE mode is backward compatible for WPA2 devices?

WPA3-SAE transition mode

WPA3-SAE mode

WDS

OKC

41. Which of the following is the Cisco suggested EAP method to mitigate the offline dictionary attacks?

EAP-FAST

LEAP

RADIUS

None of the above

42. Symmetric key encryption uses two keys. One key is used to encrypt the plaintext, and the other key is used to decrypt the ciphertext.

True

False

43. Which of the following features is introduced in WPA3 that protects encrypted data and prevents a future sessions by not exposing the past transmissions?

Forward Secrecy

OKC

4-way handshake

Enterprise 192-bit encryption

44. Opportunistic wireless encryption encrypts all wireless traffic by adding a Diffie-Hellman key exchange that creates an unknown PMK used in the 4-way handshake to generate the encryption keys

True

False

45. Which of the following tunneling protocol provides data confidentiality, data integrity, and nonrepudiation?

PPTP

L2TP

CHAP

PAP

46. Which of the following RSNA authentication mechanisms are specified in the 802.11i standard?

Pre-shared key (PSK)

802.1X

IPSec

P2TP

47. The fundamental elements of RADIUS are the supplicant, authenticator, and an applicant

True

False

48. Put the authentication and key management key hierarchy in correct order

49. Which of the following documents outlines the audit requirements, deliverables, and timeline that the auditor will execute for a customer?

Nondisclosure agreement

Statement of work

Liability waiver

None of the above

50. Which of the following frame exchange methods are used by Fast BSS transition?

Over the air fast BSS transition

Over the DS fast BSS transition

4-way handshake

Mobile IP solution

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